Richard Harold Steinberg (2002) argues that although the WTO's
consensus governance model provides law-based initial bargaining,
trading rounds close through power-based bargaining favoring Europe
and the U.S., and may not lead to Pareto improvement.[71]


Why do some scholars believe that the WTO gives more bargaining power to Europe and the U.S. if they are no voting rights? Through what mechanisms does the U.S. and Europe end up getting more power than other countries?