Why is that for Indian Muslims, wealth and upward social mobility is not associated with greater female seclusion?
India has one of the lowest female labour participation in the world (ref), this twitter thread says that as Indian families become wealthier, they tighten female mobility to buy respectability in rural areas (backed by some papers). My interest is in this remark:
But among Indian Muslims, wealth and upward mobility are NOT associated with greater female seclusion.
Does there exist theoretical explanation/narrative on why Indian Muslims don't follow the general trend?