An article today discusses the difference between the U.S. and Canadian political systems and claims to answer a simple question, but the main issue remains unanswered.
Why can Canada’s parliament vote for a change (in gun laws), but even when a single party controls both Congress and Senate a change (in gun ownership laws) is all but impossible?
Is this, for example, one of the cases when the bar for a Senate vote is not simply 50% + 1 (VP, in the current Senate), but 60% or even two-thirds (66 or 67?)?
If two House of Representatives sponsor a law (such as a background-checks law), the vote passes in Congress (assuming unanimous vote among representatives from the Democratic Party), and the vote is ratified by 50 Senators + VP vote, does that not suffice for the law to pass (barring a presidential veto, which wouldn't be a concern here)?
