What is “common ownership”, beside nationalization?

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The Politicus
Oct 02, 2021 02:23 PM 0 Answers
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In a recent interview of Sir Keir Starmer, Andrew Marr asked whether he'd nationalize the UK's major energy companies if he became Prime Minister. When Starmer answered in the negative, Marr quoted him saying in 2020,

public services should be in public hands, not making profits for shareholders. Support common ownership of rail, mail, energy and water

Starmer argued such ownership need not consitute nationalization:

When it comes to common ownership I'm pragmatic about this. I do not agree with the argument that says we must be ideological.

One read of this is that Starmer's original answer meant, "I'll interpret you as asking whether if I do so it would be ideological rather than pragmatic (e.g. on a case by case basis), but I'll answer so concisely people might think I won't do it at all". But this question seeks if possible a different reading. Political philosophies are diverse, and two may have different definitions in a way that's nuanced and maybe not even a matter of consensus. Those difficulties notwithstanding, is there any way to have common ownership without shareholder profits, other than "nationalization"? In particular, this question is not about Starmer per se.

Wikipedia describes nationalization as

transforming privately-owned assets into public assets by bringing them under the public ownership of a national government or state.

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  • October 2, 2021