Is the evolution of vox populi in the EU well established?

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The Politicus
Oct 14, 2021 06:32 AM 0 Answers
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As a holder of a European baccalaureate, I was in an EEC school aged 6 to 14 and an EU school aged 14 to 17.

QUESTION: What is the thematic consistency of the first article of the first treaty of EU? how can an EU of closest citizen decision, become only the right to petition, excluding everything subsidiary to the EU? What other decision rights do I have than petitioning? how are my EU rights the closest possible decisive power of the citizen??

Article one of the Maastricht treaty for establishing the EU stated:

ARTICLE 1 ... The process of creating an ever closer union among the peoples of Europe, IN WHICH DECISIONS ARE TAKEN AS CLOSELY AS POSSIBLE BY THE CITIZEN.
(of course, without 4G organizational efficiency, citizen decision was just a dream)

Article 1's founding justification is then expanded/diminished/voided:

RESOLVED to a union in which decisions are taken as closely as possible to the citizen in accordance with the principle of subsidiarity.

So as an EU citizen, I feel that my power of vox populi is " by petition in the principle of subsidiarity. " ...(couldn't we have an EU app then? no because of this founding clause? The EU would be the worlds most successful polity if it actually ensured popular content technocratically)

The premise of the Union is my right to petition the European Parliament in accordance with Article 138d. (is it enough? am I really empowered?)

Am I the only one who feels that that Article 1 of the Maastricht Treaty has been subverted? My vox populi is the right to petition the EU in accordance to the principle of subsidiarity?

How can a UNION be based on the notion of popular content of citizens, when the mechanism for establishing popular content is: to petition the Union under the principle of subsidiarity?

Today in the age of apps and digital efficiency, shouldn't popular content be promoted upwards in the EU's priorities, and promoted from a right to petition in a subsidiary fashion?

We all think so.

In reality, 2 years after Maastricht, some MEP's were spending 300 per week on wine, 500 per week on Bruxellois restaurants, 200 per day on taxis... So I feel that article 1 of Maastricht was corrupted/negated with subsequent clauses which effectively suppress, contradict, and minimize the basis of the union.

Why am I wrong?

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  • October 14, 2021