GDP per capita of areas formerly belonging to East Germany vs those of northern England

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The Politicus
Jul 07, 2022 01:16 AM 0 Answers
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The BBC wrote (at beginning of Feb) regarding UK's "levelling up" plan:

The problem that the government seeks to solve with its "levelling up" agenda is clear - the fact that the UK is one of the world's most geographically unequal major economies - and that has worsened over the past three decades. [...]

But where a mission such as this has been achieved, for example in post-unification Germany, there have been massive fiscal transfers from rich regions to poor ones approaching one and a half trillion pounds, or £70bn a year.

The stark fact is that GDP per capita in some east German regions now exceeds that in some northern English regions.

In that last sentence, I suppose the repetition of the word "some" qualifying the extent of the comparison for both areas is significant. So, how is one to circumscribe that comparison in more concrete terms/areas in order to make it true? And is this comparison far from being true "on average" between those regions?

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