The BBC wrote (at beginning of Feb) regarding UK's "levelling up" plan:
The problem that the government seeks to solve with its "levelling up" agenda is clear - the fact that the UK is one of the world's most geographically unequal major economies - and that has worsened over the past three decades. [...]
But where a mission such as this has been achieved, for example in post-unification Germany, there have been massive fiscal transfers from rich regions to poor ones approaching one and a half trillion pounds, or £70bn a year.
The stark fact is that GDP per capita in some east German regions now exceeds that in some northern English regions.
In that last sentence, I suppose the repetition of the word "some" qualifying the extent of the comparison for both areas is significant. So, how is one to circumscribe that comparison in more concrete terms/areas in order to make it true? And is this comparison far from being true "on average" between those regions?
