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The Politicus
Apr 29, 2022 01:13 PM 0 Answers
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Just to be clear, I am neither in favour of Russia's war nor arguing against punishing it for the invasion. However, I have noticed a difference in rhetoric around what seems to me to be similar sorts of economic action (though this could well just be my ignorance talking).

Sanctions against Russia have cut it off from many different resources, companies have pulled out, thereby affecting many supply chains.

When Russia, disagreeing with the stance of another country in supporting its enemy, cuts off oil and gas in an attempt to use it as leverage in removing that support, it gets called blackmail.

It comes as no surprise that the Kremlin uses fossil fuels to try to blackmail us… Our response will be immediate, united and coordinated" ~ Ursula von der Leyen (President of the European Commission)

Is there an objective difference between the two uses of economic leverage that makes Russia's actions "blackmail" and the sanctions against them not-blackmail?

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