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Could Section 2 of the Voting Rights Act be used to force a state to draw a minority-white district without a racial majority?

The Politicus
Feb 03, 2022 09:30 PM 0 Answers
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Let's say that a state has 30% of its population be a racial (or ethnic, depending on what you consider a race or ethnicity) minority. It has 4 congressional districts, and all of its representatives in Congress are white Republicans and the minority population in the state overwhelmingly votes Democratic, and the district could be theoretically drawn in a compact way.

Often the VRA is interpreted as saying that a certain racial minority needs to have over 50% of the adult population. But what I am asking is can such a suit be brought with a reasonable chance of success that tries to draw an "all minorities" district where non-Hispanic whites make up less than 50% of the voting-age population but without a single nonwhite majority or even plurality?

Note: this question might be better on Law Stack Exchange, but it's also a political question.

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